C-130J Pilot MQF Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• During a CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN ACAWS message, what immediate action should the crew take?
• The propeller overspeed governor test may fail up to how many consecutive times before maintenance action is required?
• IFR departures which require a departure alternate are not authorized for which types of flights?
• Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors?
• The engine starter duty cycle is which of the following?
• If predicted climb-out flight path is not required, raise the flaps passing FUSS, Vobs + 25 but not less than how many KIAS?
• When ENG 1 NO OIL PRESS ACAWS message is indicated during start, the recommended action regarding the ENGINE START switch is to:
• Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than:
• Is it permissible to select AUTONAV when only one CNI-MU shows the correct present position?
• Flight into turbulence shall be conducted in accordance with which guidance to avoid severe and extreme turbulence for fixed-wing operations?
• The Booster hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to:
• What is the maximum airspeed at which the cargo ramp can be open or closed?
• Turning the switches on with three or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can cause which system to automatically turn off?
• Fuel reserve and departure fuel amounts: 45 minutes after reaching the alternate and 10 percent more than required to reach the alternate.
• What is the second general step in handling aircraft emergencies?
• In an airstart scenario where FIRE IN and NG < 7%, the required start completion window is which of the following?
• During cross-ship manifold priming, with the No 1 MAIN transfer switch set to FROM and the X SHIP switch opened, the FUEL PRESS indicator should read within which range, and the decrease when the No 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed TO is approximately how many PSI?
• What is the fuel unbalance limit between the left and right wings?
• The FROM/TO page allows entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed. To find bearing distance from your present position to a VORTAC, which entry options are correct?
• The Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) decreases which of the following speeds?
• If a mission is likely to save property of the United States or its citizens, it warrants the risk of damage to the aircraft no matter the value of the property or if the aircraft cannot be recovered.
• If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least how many feet? If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel, approach should be from which direction?
• Maximum recommended airspeed (Vh) must not be exceeded in greater than which level of turbulence to avoid structural damage?
• In RVSM airspace, the autopilot may be used only if it can maintain altitude within what tolerance?
• Which fuel condition is described as the minimum fuel in No. 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without using RUN?
• To avoid fuel freezing, which combination of conditions should be met?
• Which steps are recommended when adjusting bleed-off engine performance?
• A feather command is counted when which of the following events occurs?
• Do not move the power levers below FLT IDLE above a certain speed. What is that speed (KTAS) at which you should not move the levers below FLT IDLE?
• Which statement about GCAS and TCAS is true?
• The critical engine for VMCA is the ______ engine, and the critical engines for VMCA2 are the ______, and the ______ engines.
• The guidance that recovering evidence does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft applies to missions such as Drug and Migrant Interdiction and other Law Enforcement missions.
• Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable only in level flight.
• APU EGT exceeding 710 C for more than 3 seconds triggers the ACAWS alert to reduce APU loading. What are the two values that complete this rule?
• Which system is powered by the Utility hydraulic system?
• An alternate is not required for an instrument flight plan stopover when the forecast weather at the first intended landing meets certain conditions for a period around ETA. Which combination best represents those conditions?
• Which conditions must exist to arm the CAT 2 sub-mode of the HUD?
• In the configuration where engine-driven generators 1, 2, and 4 are on line, which generator powers the main and RH AC buses?
• Brake creep during normal takeoffs may be accounted for by reducing runway available in the TOLD INIT 1/2 page by a specified amount. If the brakes are released within a certain number of seconds, the difference will be less than a specified distance. What are these values?
• The APU may be operating during application of de-icing fluid. Is this true or false?
• During the power up checklist, if battery voltage is between which values should you recharge or replace the battery and rerun the battery test?
• In turbulence avoidance guidance, which document and which severity levels are explicitly cited as the correct combination to avoid turbulence?
• During a ground engine start, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least how long?
• This scenario is an example of warranted risk for which objective?
• Low fuel state operations are defined as those that result in landing at the destination with less than how many pounds of fuel?
• In automatic mode, the aircraft should not begin to pressurize until:
• The new Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) allows C-130J to utilize new Area Navigation (RNAV) capabilities. Which operations does AAIM enable?
• Under which conditions should the NESA HEAT switch be turned off?
• Which main fuel tank feeds the APU?
• Even short term deviations outside of +/- 2,150 feet of the active flight plan entered cruise altitude will cause misleading time navigation indications. The correct deviation value is 2,150 feet. Which option lists 2,150 feet as the correct value?
• Who has the authority to authorize takeoffs below standard minimums when urgency dictates the mission, according to the policy described?
• During a precautionary landing away from home station for observed or suspected malfunctions, who should clear the aircraft for further flight if the reported malfunction is minor and not a threat, except in unusual circumstances?
• Below AGL/AWL, bank angle shall not exceed which combination of altitude and parameters?
• Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include a 1-second allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude and maximum anti-skid braking and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude. True or False?
• What are the minimum battery voltages for takeoff and the replacement threshold?
• Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than how many seconds on the ground, unless sufficient air flow exists for cooling from engine operation or taxi?
• Which combination fulfills the RVSM entry requirement?
• APU bleed air can be used during flight.
• If both tires of the right main landing gear are flat, what is the recommended landing action?
• If icing is detected, which warning system will limit crosswind landing capability?
• What is the maximum airspeed with flaps set to 70 percent?
• When the airplane will land with less than a certain amount of fuel, ATC must be informed that a FUEL EMERGENCY exists. This threshold is which amount?
• Delay turning off AC power for approximately how many seconds to prevent abnormal shutdown of the EGI?
• CAUTION: A cooldown period is required between stick pusher activations to prevent damage to which component?
• The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of ___ before applying a bleed air load.
• If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other ACAWS occurs, what action is required for directional control?
• Static propeller feathering cycles are limited to how many cycles?
• What is the maximum airspeed for paratroop doors opening or closing or opening but not locked?
• For a safe takeoff, the runway available must be greater than or equal to the critical field length.
• During touch-and-go landings, the aural alerts remain active unless airspeed decreases to less than or equal to what KIAS on the runway with power levers below FLT IDLE?
• Which statement about HC-130J fuel compatibility is correct?
• Which action is required if the APU shuts down without an ACAWS message before restarting?
• The bleed air system serves which of the following systems?
• Where is the PUAD mounted?
• Entry and exit to the airplane using the left and right paratroop doors is prohibited during ground operations while the engines are operating in which condition?
• TCAS resolution advisories are displayed in which ways?
• What is the maximum airspeed for windshield anti-ice protection inoperative below 10,000 ft MSL?
• During anti-icing mode, which statement about wing/empennage zone control valves is true?
• Which component detects autofeather criteria in the engine management system?
• What is the limit of waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations?
• Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is measured in feet per minute. Which option correctly states this value?
• During a start, if no NG indication is present seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START, the correct action is to:
• The PUAD supplies mounting flanges for which combination of components?
• In weather radar mode, turbulence information is not available for range scales greater than 80 NM.
• What is the maximum MGT threshold above which you should not commence an engine start?
• If the APU generator is on line, which AC buses does it power regardless of other generators' status?
• What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine start switch to RUN?
• For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of performance.
• What is the maximum normal gross weight of the aircraft?
• What is the total capacity of the main tanks?
• What is the maximum alternate gross weight?
• Not to exceed what gust increment for speed increases during takeoff planning?
• For a circling approach, should you maintain the approach speed until established on final approach?
• Wheel and tire assembly peak temperatures occur approximately within what time after maximum braking operation?
• At altitudes above 15,500 feet, if the FADEC detects autofeather criteria it will:
• On Coast Guard missionized aircraft, ICS will not function without AC power.
• Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable even in conditions other than level flight.
• Minimum altitude for normal four engine operations is AWL; may be used for identification passes during day VMC conditions (no slower than approach speed). What are the two values?
• When making operational descents, the rate of descent shall not exceed how many FPM during the last segment prior to MDA, and if good visual contact with the surface is not made at MDA, what action is required?
• When the APU fire handle is pulled the following occurs:
• What maximum gross weight allows a 540 FPM landing sink rate?
• If the APU shuts down without an ACAWS message, which action is required before attempting an APU restart?
• What is the nose gear deflection limit for 60 degrees?
• Manifold bleed air pressure can be read on the:
• Cold weather procedures are used when ambient temperature is at or below which value?
• Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start?
• What action is recommended to ensure wing/empennage anti-icing is complete before landing?
• During 4-engine reverse thrust, at first indication of directional control difficulties, to which position should you return all power levers until the affected engine can be identified?
• The maximum speed for paratroop doors opening or closing or opening but not locked?
• To ensure climb gradient compliance, the PIC must ensure the aircraft meets or exceeds the published climb gradient for the chosen departure method.
• If no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at least 152 feet per nautical mile with one engine inoperative.
• During a start, a momentary bleed pressure drop is acceptable under what condition?
• What is the purpose of shifting engines to LSGI before shutdown?
• What are the limits for fuel unbalance between wings (excluding AUX tank fuel)?
• Which statements regarding TCAS are correct?
• If both radar altimeters are inoperative, which minimums apply for flight operations?
• The headwind component is used in climb-out flight path calculations.
• A stopped propeller is defined as rotation ______ NP or ______ RPS (visual)
• What are the minimum altitude and ident pass altitude for normal four-engine operations?
• AAIM RNAV capabilities: AAIM allows a C-130J aircraft to fly RNAV approaches.
• The white box around the engine parameters during start and the timer under the HP dial are removed when the start cycle completes at what NG percentage?
• Above what temperature would you use Hot Weather procedures?
• During a windshear alert, which statement describes the correct recovery actions?
• In an airstart, the time window to complete the start is three minutes. Which option states this correctly?
• During takeoff, the aural alerts and ACAWS warnings are inhibited between which ranges?
• Which of the following would cause the FADEC to automatically abort an engine start sequence during ground operations?
• When the A/T (Autothrottle) switch is pressed, which statement is correct?
• The landing gear warning audio sounds when flaps are extended beyond a threshold while the gear is not down and locked. The warning can be silenced when the gear is down or when the flaps are repositioned to below a threshold. What are the threshold values?
• Which page computes bearing, distance, and time between two points?
• The engines can be safely shutdown from normal ground idle, if required.
• During ground starts, the FADEC automatically shuts down the engine start sequence for which of the following?
• TCAS is designed never to issue resolution advisories that would place the airplane outside the performance envelope.
• All maneuvering turns should be conducted above AGL/AWL. At what minimum altitude should this be practiced?
• According to AAIM RNAV capabilities, AAIM supports RNAV DP/SID and RNAV-2 routes.
• How many portable oxygen bottles does the C-130J have?
• The manual shutoff valve for the C-130J oxygen system is located on which bulkhead?
• During ILS approaches, autopilot engagement is not advised below what altitude for CAT I operations?
• Each engine-driven hydraulic pump has an internal flow compensator to vary output with system demand and to control pressure to maintain approximately how many psi?
• To avoid carrying an alternate in certain conditions, the forecast weather at the first intended landing must be valid for a specific period around the ETA. Which time window correctly represents this condition?
• A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of 'C' defines which of the following?
• Which speed is defined as the minimum control speed when a single engine is inoperative?
• VMCA2 critical engines configuration is which of the following?
• Which sequence correctly lists the four general steps in their proper order for handling aircraft emergencies?
• What is the first general step in handling aircraft emergencies?
• What is the maximum alternate gross weight that may be used without additional waiver?
• Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are:
• Propeller stopped is defined as rotation less than or equal to which NP and RPS values?
• What is the maximum airspeed when encountering severe turbulence?
• What happens when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected?
• Resorts and beaches should be avoided by fixed-wing aircraft by a minimum distance and altitude when the aircraft is below a certain height. What are these minimums?
• Placement of the flaps lever at or beyond the specified position activates diverter valves to bypass the pressure reducers, allowing hydraulic fluid at approximately which pressure to reach the booster assembly?
• APU maximum continuous EGT is ___ degrees C.
• Which law enforcement mission category is listed as an example in risk guidance?
• The PIC shall file a written or computerized domestic, military or ICAO flight plan prior to each flight except when:
• Commanding Officer approval is required for departures using see-and-avoid instead of meeting the required climb gradient.
• If both mission computers fail, what is the expected mode of operation?
• In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open continuously.
• Which category could result in damage to equipment if not followed?
• TCAS detection range limits are 40 NM nose, 15 NM sides, 12 NM tail.
• When ACAWS red warnings are present on the ground, what is the first action to take?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four general steps to handling aircraft emergencies?
• An ICY runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
• Pulling the computer cursor switch to its first detent and releasing changes the cursor mode to which option?
• The common cursor modes available via the cursor control panel include all of the following except:
• Which category is defined as essential to emphasize in procedures?
• Turn off the NESA HEAT switch (affected windows) if :
• One smoke detector is located on the flight deck.
• During the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test, if outside air temperature exceeds 70°F and the test must be repeated, what is the minimum cooldown time to prevent overheating the vertical tail?
• Apply _% of headwind component to brake limits and takeoff and landing distances and % of headwind component for climb out flight path calculations.
• What is the primary measure of engine power?
• The speed defined as the maximum speed to accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway, with two-engines symmetrical power in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.
• Logistics or other missions having little urgency can be prosecuted if they expose the aircraft to hazards greater than those encountered during routine training missions.
• A pilot is manually flying at 10,000 ft MSL while HUD and PFD altitude references read 5,000 ft. Which statement is correct?
• Normal bleed includes all but which item?
• How many smoke detectors are there on the airplane and where are they?
• During engine start, what percentage NG marks the completion threshold for a normal start?
• If an ACAWS message ENG 1 NO OIL PRESS is indicated, what action should you take with the engine start switch?
• On the FROM/TO page, which inputs are required to compute bearing, distance, and time?
• If torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust or excessive smoke occurs during engine start, which action sequence is correct?
• Two-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed is abbreviated as which term?
• A main tank boost pump is turned on by which action?
• All weather requirements apply for the period beginning 1 hour before ETA and ending 1 hour after ETA at each point.
• TCAS changes to TA ONLY mode automatically during an active GCAS alert.
• TOD stands for Fixed Top of Descent in a VNAV profile.
• Excessive precipitation, the most severe rate, is depicted as ____ on the color weather radar.
• What is the maximum airspeed for the paratroop door open and locked?
• Below AWL/AGL, the pilots should occupy the pilot seats during all operations to what altitude?
• No clearance shall be granted to a destination where there is no Terminal Aerodrome Forecast or where forecast weather will be below compatible minimums upon arrival unless an alternate with weather equal to or better than specified minimums is available. The specified minimums include ceiling and visibility. Which set of numbers could represent those minimums?
• In a crosswind scenario where the aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots, which engine power limit applies until speed exceeds 35 knots?
• To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately how many seconds or until ECB 499 indicates open?
• Fuel figures require a 45 minute reserve after reaching the alternate and departure fuel must be at least 10 percent more than that required to reach the alternate.
• If engine oil temperature is ≤ 0 degrees C, in which mode should the engine be operated until the temperature is above 15 degrees C and rising?
• GMAD is mounted on the rear of which component?
• Fuel transfer pumps are turned on by placing the transfer switch to which position?
• GCAS alerts are given higher priority than TCAS alerts.
• During engine start, which UI element indicates how long the starter engagement has been activated?
• A climb to at least how many feet should be made prior to commencing any turns?
• Below 15,500 feet with the other engines running normally, when the FADEC detects autofeather criteria for an inboard engine it will:
• Turbulence is depicted as in the weather radar mode.
• Which wing/empennage ice protection mode should not be operated except during approach and landing?
• In the configuration where engine-driven generators 1, 2, and 4 are on line, which generator powers the LH AC bus?
• What is the maximum ground speed for the main landing gear?
• Operating the aircraft in severe icing conditions or in freezing rain/drizzle is recommended or not?
• Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately what time range, and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately what time range after a maximum braking operation?
• The forecast for the destination alternate must be at or above the weather specified for the alternate; for non-precision and precision approaches, the numbers apply differently. Which option lists a valid set of alternate weather minimums that might be used in this rule?
• For rates of sink from 300 to 540 FPM, which set correctly lists the fuel limits?
• Lowering the landing gear without meeting the anti-icing timing can trigger which ACAWS message?
• Before entering RVSM airspace, which systems must be operational?
• Which of the following best matches the three defined safety terms WARNING, CAUTION, and NOTE with their typical implications?
• During preflight planning, at a minimum, the PIC shall be familiar with which items?
• A comprehensive weather briefing is required before an IFR flight and this briefing must include all items contained in a Standard Briefing as defined by the AIM.
• In a total AC electrical failure, standby instruments can be powered for at least how many minutes by the utility battery?
• If the radar altimeter is inoperative or unreliable, which system is used to ensure adequate clearance from surface objects?
• At altitude above 15,500 feet autofeather criteria cause which actions?
• The maximum lateral deviation used as a criterion for ground minimum control speed is 30 feet. Which option lists 30 feet?
• For rates of sink 300-540 FPM, how many pounds per tank do Tanks 1 and 4 hold?
• The C-130J oxygen system uses oxygen stored in which state?
• In preparation for takeoff, the wind with a 6 knot gust increment. You should add:
• Who among the following organizations is authorized to authorize takeoffs below standard minimums when urgency dictates?
• The ENGINE START switch must be placed to STOP if no indication of engine oil pressure is indicated by ENG 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
• Peak temperatures in the brake assembly occur approximately within what time after maximum braking operation?
• During an airstart, the FADEC will not allow the start sequence to begin unless NG is less than what percent?
• With brakes fully applied and engine at maximum power, forward movement (brake creep) at which speed is acceptable?
• The emergency brakes are powered by which hydraulic system?
• Select the correct ACAWS statement about its message behavior.
• The liftoff speed must be greater than which OEI minimum control speeds?
• Which statement about operating with autopilot engaged is correct?
• The fuel temperature is considered equal to which parameter?
• Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.
• During takeoff planning under gust conditions, which speed should be increased by the gust increment?
• Apply % of tailwind component to brake limits, takeoff and landing distances, and climb out flight path obstacle distances.
• What is the term for the ground minimum control speed?
• When comparing the indicated altitude to the elevation of a known check point, the maximum allowable error is +/- how many feet for the pilot, copilot and standby altimeters?
• During manual flap extension, is there protection against asymmetrical flap operation?
• What is the normal flap setting for landing on this aircraft?
• Magenta indicates the most severe precipitation rate on color weather radar.
• Which action should be taken if turning with the brakes locked occurs?
• What method of ice protection is used on the propellers?
• During a normal ground engine start, if the FADEC has automatically aborted the start, what is the correct action?
• During ground operations, limit horsepower to which two settings due to oil temperature constraints?
• Before an IFR flight, obtain and record a comprehensive weather briefing.
• GMAD does not supply pads and drives for which component?
• The last autopilot engaged determines the flight director source. The statement is:
• The oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure regulators and operates at an indicated pressure in a static system under a no-flow condition. Under continuous breathing, what should the indicated pressure be?
• The maximum tire ground speed (knots) for the nose wheel is:
• If a mission is likely to prevent pain or relieve intense pain or suffering, or may save a human life, it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovery can be reasonably expected.
• Always increase rotation speed, obstacle clearance speed, approach speed, threshold speed, and touchdown speed by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots.
• Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if no NG is present seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START. How many seconds is specified?
• Is it allowed to manually input data into the CNI-MU if the waypoints are not listed in the database?
• During preflight planning, who is responsible for being familiar with the weather for the route and NOTAMS?
• Which fuels are recommended or acceptable for use in the HC-130J?
• The landing gear extension time is less than or equal to how many seconds?
• The limit of waypoint spaces includes which destinations?
• Which category is associated with a potential for personal injury if not followed?
• What are the fuel unbalance limits between a symmetrical pair of tanks (main or external)?
• The landing gear extension and retraction time should be less than or equal to how many seconds?
• Within Primary Fuel Management, Tanks 1 and 4 shall contain to lb more fuel per tank than tanks 2 and 3, except when usable fuel is less than lbs.
• What is the total number of smoke detectors installed on the airplane?
• Coast Guard policy states that flights should be conducted IFR whenever practical.
• Ground Minimum Control Speed is based on the following conditions and restrictions except:
• During takeoff, if an engine failure occurs after reaching refusal speed, what bank angle is recommended toward the operating engines?
• A stopped propeller is defined as rotation at or below which NP percentage and which RPS?
• If departure airport weather is at takeoff minimums but approach minimums exist, what is required regarding a departure alternate?
• Ground minimum control speed is not considered for both the maximum effort and adjusted maximum effort speed schedules.
• The common cursor can locate a position on which displays?
• In navigation planning, AAIM is used with RNAV SID/DP or STAR to monitor navigation integrity. What does AAIM stand for?
• During cross-ship priming, moving the No 4 MAIN transfer switch to TO causes the FUEL PRESS to change by approximately which of the following?
• What is the correct interpretation of 'A or B' as an option in runway availability context?
• During the airstart procedure, how long after NG stabilizes should you wait before the onset of propeller rotation?
• To avoid fuel freezing, which statement correctly describes the fuel temperature requirement?
• In RVSM airspace, the autopilot must maintain altitude within what tolerance of ATC assigned flight level at all times during normal cruise?
• To whom should the results of maintenance inspections be reported after a precautionary landing?
• What is the APU starter duty cycle?
• To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over how many degrees?
• In the configuration where engine-driven generators 1, 2, and 4 are on line, which bus is powered by generator 4?
• What color denotes an extreme range on engine instrument indications?
• Descents below 5000' with wing and empennage ice protection systems operating require a minimum power setting on 2 engines of horsepower per engine.
• Which option describes the configuration used to determine Refusal Speed?
• If MGT is above 175 C, what action should be taken before starting?
• According to climb gradient requirements, the PIC must ensure the aircraft meets the published climb gradient for the chosen departure method with how many engines inoperative?
• Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. If any of the above occurs, what is the recommended action?
• Which radios may be operated from the Get Home Control panel?
• To meet RVSM requirements, which combination of systems must be operational?
• For VFR flights scheduled to return to the flight's origin, complete the Local Mission Route section of ALMIS EAL; a paper Pre-Mission may not be substituted if required due to EAL malfunctions.
• In the configuration with engine-driven generators 1, 2, and 4 on line, which bus is powered by generator 1?
• Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to how many nautical miles of range coverage?
• Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above how many degrees C? Motor the engine, if necessary.
• In the event of a total AC electrical failure, the utility battery will supply standby instruments for a minimum of how many minutes?
• External tanks (if installed) fuel limit per tank when installed?
• On a two-engine inoperative go-around, the flaps should not be raised above what percent because low boost will be set and rudder control may be insufficient for full two-engine power?
• What is the recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings?
• What color(s) on engine instrument indicators indicate the Normal Operating Range?
• Which statement about fuel unbalance limits is true?
• If icing is encountered within 6 minutes of landing, which speed increase set is correct for 100% flaps, 50% flaps, and 0% flaps?
• The fire handle must be pulled if no indication of propeller gearbox oil pressure is indicated by GBOX 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
• Fusible plug release is likely after the second consecutive full anti-skid braking operation above how many pounds, and unlikely to occur with a single aborted takeoff up to how many pounds?
• Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the fuel tank.
• During a crosswind landing, persistent BANK ANGLE or SIDE SLIP alerts or RUDDER alerts indicate crosswinds may be too high to land safely. True or False?
• For an alternate destination, the forecast weather must meet minimums stated as ceiling and visibility. Which set of values represents the required minimums: Ceiling and above, and Visibility, respectively?
• All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed except:
• Wing/empennage anti-icing mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure the vertical stabilizer is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as how many minutes?
• What is the maximum airspeed with flaps set to 100 percent?
• In cross-ship priming observations, which switch configuration is used to observe the described FUEL PRESS behavior?
• If HUD is unavailable, the minimum altitude AWL/AGL is limited to what value?
• A WET runway condition corresponds to a RCR of _.
• What is the maximum airspeed for the paratroop air deflector doors?
• The altimeter setting reads 29.98 in Hg on the pilot's PFD. Approach Control says the correct setting is 1013 MB. Which statement is correct?
• If the oil cooler flaps switches fail, how can you operate the system?
• Which system is powered by the AUX hydraulic system?
• What are the ACAWS alert levels?
• The APU start light should extinguish when?
• In the standard takeoff minimums, which phrase correctly lists the two meteorological visibility values and the authority for taking off below minimums?
• You plan to airstart a shutdown engine. The FIRE handle is IN, the propeller is stopped, and NG is <7%. According to the airstart scenario table, you must complete the airstart within how many minutes?
• The target symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a .
• Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is measured in feet per minute. Which value is correct?
• Normal hydraulic operating pressure indication should appear within how many seconds after NP is on speed?
• On a C-130J model the oxygen system uses oxygen and the manual shutoff valve is located on the side of which bulkhead?
• Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining an engine start is psi. A momentary drop below this is acceptable when the starter valve opens. What is the value?
• Select the correct statement concerning AC Bus power sources.
• Engine shutdowns on the ground are divided into two categories. For all ACAWS warnings, pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shut downs and shut downs for ACAWS cautions and advisories, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
• When is it acceptable to risk the damage to or sacrifice of the aircraft and crew?
• If either HUD is not available, the minimum altitude AWL/AGL is limited to how many feet?
• Which statement best defines a WARNING in safety communications?
• Altitude deviation from the reference altitude triggers a flashing 'CHECK ALTITUDE' message when the aircraft deviates by more than how many feet?
• Which symbol represents a traffic advisory on the display?
• The engine FIRE handle when pulled:
• Static propeller feathering is limited to how many cycles, and how many feather commands is it limited to?
• Which conditions automatically shut off both air conditioning units?
• In anti-icing mode, how do the wing/empennage zone control valves operate?
• For alternate weather minimums, the weather at the alternate shall not be lower than the lowest compatible circling minimums as specified in current flight information publications. Which option best captures this rule?
• If the destination is an island or remote location and no alternate is available, who determines the required holding time in lieu of an alternate?
• Engine ice protection must be on for taxi and takeoff when operating in visible moisture with ambient temperature at or below how many degrees Celsius?
• If suspected or actual inflight damage, fuel imbalance, or differential airspeed occurs that may cause aircraft control problems, which check is required prior to landing?
• During the diverter valve bypass condition, hydraulic pressure to the booster assembly increases to approximately how many psi?
• Under primary fuel management, the minimum fuel in Tanks 1 and 4 is 7560 lb and in Tanks 2 and 3 is 6812 lb when external and/or auxiliary tanks contain usable fuel. Which option lists these values?
• AAIM stands for what?
• Which statement best defines a NOTE?
• Between 105,000 lbs and 80,000 lbs, how does the crosswind limit change with weight?
• For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within six minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds with 100% flaps by knots, approach and threshold speeds with 50% flaps by knots, and approach and threshold speeds with 0% flaps by knots.
• Which statement best defines a CAUTION?
• If engine oil temperature before start is ≤ 0 degrees C, operate the engine in HOTEL mode until the oil temperature is above what temperature in degrees C and rising?
• What feature do engine-driven hydraulic pumps use to adjust output with demand?
• How is the underfloor heat turned on?
• During ground engine starts, pull the fire handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds which temperature?
• For ground engine shutdowns other than ACAWS warnings, which control should be used to stop the engine?
• Specifically, the propeller overspeed governor test may be attempted with oil temperature greater than or equal to what degrees C, and if the test fails, retest when oil temperature is greater than or equal to what degrees C?
• If one Mission Computer (MC) is lost, what is the reduction in capability?
• During anti-icing mode, which statement about wing/empennage zone control valves is true?
• If anti-icing is not turned on in time and the landing gear are lowered, which ACAWS message may be displayed?
• Which component is used to regulate oxygen pressure in the C-130J oxygen system?
• What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff when the aircraft weight is above 105,000 pounds?
• Which page is used to select millibars for the altimeter setting?
• For a WINDSHEAR alert during takeoff or approach, or GCAS PULL UP alert, which combination of actions should be performed?
• When ice is detected and Wing and Empennage Ice Protection is AUTO or ON, activation occurs at what airspeed in knots?
• A commanding Officer may authorize a CP in lieu of the FP on a calculated risk basis for maintenance flights.
• Increase the rotation speed due to crosswind only when evaluating maximum effort takeoff procedures.
• What is the maximum airspeed for the paratroop door open and locked?
• Flights shall be conducted IFR, whenever practical. When operating under VFR, use radar advisory services when convenience allows.
• If no climb gradient is published, the minimum climb gradient with one engine inoperative is 152 ft/NM.
• Before attempting a ground engine restart, wait how many seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit?